BIO 420 Final, Spring 2011

LEBANESE AMERICAN UNIVERSITY SCHOOL OF ARTS AND SCIENCES NATURAL SCIENCE DIVISION BIO 420 : Virology and Immunology Final Exam- Spring 2011 Name : ________________________ ID : ___________________________ Grade:_______________ Select the appropriate answer (s) (3 points). 1. The main oncogenic DNA viruses are: a. Retroviruses b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Papilloma viruses d. Hepatitis A virus e. Hepatitis B virus f. All of the above 2. Burkitt’s lymphoma is caused by: a. Herpes simplex viruses b. Hepatitis C virus c. Hepatites B virus d. Human T cell lymphotropic virus 1 e. Epstein-Barr virus f. All of the above 3. The major oncogenic RNA viruses are: a. Human papilloma viruses b. Human T-cell lymphotopic virus 1 c. Human T –cell lymphotropc virus 2 d. Hepatitis B virus e. Hepatitis A virus f. Coronavirus 1 4. Human immunodeficiency viruses do not appear to cause malignant disease directly. Nevertheless, they are directly involved in the formation of various tumours. Why? a. The profound immunodepression afflicting AIDS patients potentiates tumour cell escape and growth. b. The v-onc component of the provirus contains the genes for tumor growth. c. HIV transforms the host cell to indefinite growth. d. The RNA copies of HIV express oncogenic proteins. e. Viral oncogenes (v-onc) activate mutagenic stimuli to induce malignancy f. Viral oncogenes assisted by cellular factors activate indefinite cell growth. 5. B-cell lymphoma cancer is liable to occur in ……………… patients, including those suffering from ………….. a. Immune competent, AIDS b. Immunosuppressed, EBV, c. Immunosuppressed, AIDS d. Depressed, EBV associated tumors e. Immunocopromised, Burkitt’s lymphoma f. Measles, Crohns’ disease 6. A proto-oncogenes code for proteins that are involved in: a. Regulation of cell growth and differentiation, b. Extracellular signaling and tumor progression c. Signal transduction d. Execution of mitogenic signals e. Intercellular protein-protein interactions f. a, c, d g. b, c, e h. c, d, e 7. The uncontrolled and often rapid proliferation of cells can lead to malignant tumors. The cellular transformation undergo: 1. Mutation inactivates DNA repair gene 2. Mutation inactivates more tumor suppressor genes 3. Mutation inactivate tumor suppressor gene 4. Mutation of proto-oncogene creates an oncogene 5. Cell proliferation In the following order before cancer is developed a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 d. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 e. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 f. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 2 8. Possible cofactors for human papilloma virus (HPV) induced carcinomas are: a. Malaria, genetic factors b. Smoking, aflatoxin contaminated diet c. Immunosuppression, nitrosamines d. Sunlight, smoking e. Liver cirrhosis, phorbol ester f. Aflatoxin contaminated food, sunlight 9. Possible cofactors for EBV induced Kaposi’s sarcoma are: a. Malaria, bacterial infection b. HIV infection, immunosuppression c. Sunlight, smoking d. Herpes simplex virus, immunosuppression e. Nitrosamines in diet, phorbol ester f. All of the above 10. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is triggered by……………… with ……………as cofactors. a. HPV, smoking and sunlight b. HCV, immunosuppression and smoking c. EBV, phorbol esters and Nitrosamines in diet d. HTLV-1, Nitrosamines in diet and phorbol esters e. HTLV-1, immunosuppression and phorbol esters f. EBV, immunosuppression and aflatoxin contaminated food 11. Alcoholism and/or food contaminated with aflatoxin are cofactors for: a. HPV, Cervical cancer b. EBV, B-cell lymphoma c. HBV, primary liver cancer d. HCV, primary liver cancer e. HHV-8, Kaposi’s sarcoma f. HTLV-1, T-cell leukaemia 12. The viral vaccines are selected on the basis of: a. Good immunogenicity and lack of pathogenicity b. Moderate immunogenicity and moderate pathogenicity c. High genetic stability d. Good immunogenicity and moderate pathogenicity e. a and c f. b and c g. c and d 3 13. What vaccines were produced during the second generation of vaccine development? a. Measles, mumps b. Rubella, polio c. Small pox, Influenza d. Rabies, Hepatitis B e. Yellow fever, Influenza f. Yellow fever, Tickborne encephalitis 14. The fifth generation of vaccine production has observed the use of modern technologies and approaches including: a. DNA vaccines b. New adjuvants c. Peptide vaccines d. Cellular vaccines e. Live attenuated vaccines f. Recombinant DNA technology 15. What is the cell substrate of the rabies vaccine? a. Eggs b. Animal skin c. Animal brain d. Chicken embryo cells e. Human diploid cells f. Yeast 16. By the age of 6 months a child should have received the following vaccines: a. 3 doses of DTP, b. Hib and polio c. Measles, mumps, rubella d. BCG, MMR e. DTP and MMR f. All of the above 17. MMR vaccination and booster are scheduled at ages of: a. 6-9 months and 2-3 years b. 12-15 months and 2-5 years c. 2 years and 5-10 years d. 10 and 14 years e. 1 and 5 years f. None of the above 4 18. An injection of human immunoglobulin preparations containing appropriate antibodies against infection by certain viruses is called: a. Passive immunization that gives partial or complete protection against infection by certain viruses. b. Immunization that gives a minimal protection against infection by certain viruses c. Immune serum that gives generalized protection against all viruses d. Passive immunization that gives long lived immunity and protection. e. Immune serum that gives immediate protection against certain viruses. f. Inoculation against certain virus to induce specific antibody response. 19. The immediate protective measure against viral infection (above) offers: a. Long-lived immunity b. Sustainable immunity for 1 year c. Sustainable immunity for 1 month d. Short lived immunity e. Protection for about 4 months f. Protection for 2 weeks 20. Based on your answers in (25, 26) select the most appropriate statement that explains your selection: a. Antibodies decay with time b. Antibodies accumulate for and thus are offer sustainable protection. c. Production, in the recipient, of antibodies against the preparation d. Immunoglobulins are substrates for macrophages e. Injectable immunoglobulins are cytotoxic f. Immediate allergic reaction against human immunoglobulins. 21. Genetically engineered virus vaccines are: a. Approaches of the 4th generation of vaccines b. Approaches of the 2nd generation of vaccines c. Approaches of the 20th century d. In practice since 1990s e. Molecular techniques for cloning of specific viral genes into other viruses f. “Trojan horses” to carry the genes of the new vaccine virus into recipient. 22. The following viruses have 5’ Cap and 3’ Polyadenylated (poly A) Tail a. Coronavirus b. Hepatitis A virus c. Hepatitis B virus d. Polio virus e. Influenza virus f. Measles virus 5 23. The genome replication of the following viruses takes place in the cytoplasm except : a. Coronavirus b. Influenza virus c. Hepatitis B virus d. Polio virus e. Rubella virus f. Human immunodeficiency virus 24. Some sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are caused by viruses: a. HSV3 b. HIV c. HBV d. HPV e. Rubella virus f. Influenza virus Select the appropriate answer (s) (2 points each) 25. How viruses are effectively inactivated to generate a killed vaccine? a. Boiling b. Heat inactivation c. UV-inactivation d. Chemical inactivation e. Inactivation at room temperature f. Detergent inactivation 26. In his painting “the wonderful effects of inoculations”, James Gillray aimed at: a. Cow-pox b. Chicken-pox c. Small-pox d. Canary-pox e. None of the above f. All of the above 27. The generation of vaccines was step-wise developed. In which generation was Polio vaccine developed? a. 1st generation b. 2nd generation c. 3rd generation d. 4th generation e. 5th generation 6 28. ……….. is usually associated with infections of the lips, mouth and face which causes lesions or infection of the eyes. a. HSV 1 b. HSV 3 c. HPV d. SARS CoV e. HBV f. HAV 29. What is the cell substrate to grow Hepatitis B vaccine? a. Human diploid cells b. Monkey kidney cells c. Chicken embryo cells d. Yeast e. Eggs f. Chicken fibroblast cells True or false (1 point each) 30. Elevated serum alanine aminotransferase levels is a marker for HBV chronic infection 1. True 2. False 31. SARS is an abbreviation for Sub-Acute Respiratory Syndrome. 1. True 2. False 32. Coronaviruses belong to the Group IV, of positive sense single stranded RNA virus. 1. True 2. False 33. Varicella-zoster virus is known by many names, including: human herpes virus type 3 (HHV-3) 1. True 2. False 34. Shingles is caused by herpes simplex virus 1. True 2. False 7 35. HBV is transmitted through activities that involve per-cutaneous (i.e., puncture through the skin) or mucosal contact with infectious blood or body fluids. 1. True 2. False Fill in the blanks (3 points) Figure 1 36. Indicate the transformation stages of cells in figure 1. a. A =…………………………….. b. B =………………………...…… c. C =…………………………….. d. D =…………………………….. e. E = …………………………….. 37. Adults in high-risk group should receive the following vaccines:. a. …………………………. b. …………………………. c. …………………………. 38. Adults at the age of 18 years should have received the following vaccines: a. ………………… b. ………………… c. ………………… d. ………………… 8 Answer the following question (5 points) 39. What virus causes Jaundice? 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