MATH 261 Midterm, Fall 2001
American University of Beirut · Number Theory · 2 pages
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Math 261 — Fall 2001–2002
Solutions to Midterm Quiz
1.
Find the prime factorizations of 8536 and 7007, and use these to calculate ϕ(7007)
and the GCD (8536, 7007).
Answer. 8536 = 23 · 11 · 97, where 97 is prime since it is not divisible by any prime
less than
√
97 ≈ 10. Also 7007 = 72 · 11 · 13. We use this to conclude that ϕ(7007) =
(72 − 7)(11 − 1)(13 − 1) = 5040, and that (8536, 7007) = 11.
2.
Calculate
� 3
11
�
in two ways, first by Euler’s criterion, and second by Gauss’ Lemma
(not by quadratic reciprocity).
Answer. Note that (11 − 1)/2 = 5. Then Euler’s criterion gives
� 3
11
�
≡ 35 ≡ 243 ≡ +1
(mod 11). For Gauss’ Lemma, we look at 3 · 1 ≡ 3, 3 · 2 ≡ −5, 3 · 3 ≡ −2, 3 · 4 ≡ 1, and
3 · 5 ≡ 4
(mod 11). Here we reduce to a residue mod 11 that is between ±5. There are
two minus signs (−5 and −2), so the quadratic residue is (−1)2 = +1.
3.
Find one solution to the equation x2 ≡ 5
(mod 112). (You do not need to find the
most general solution.)
Answer. If x2 ≡ 5
(mod 112), then certainly x2 ≡ 5
(mod 11). So we can start with
x0 = 4 (found by trial and error), which certainly satisfies x2
0 ≡ 5
(mod 11). We then
try x = x0 + 11k = 4 + 11k, where we only care about k mod 11. Now (4 + 11k)2 =
16 + 88k + 112k2 ≡ 16 + 88k
(mod 112), so we must solve the equation 16 + 88k ≡ 5
(mod 112). Equivalently,
88k ≡ −11
(mod 112) ⇐⇒ 8k ≡ −1
(mod 11) ⇐⇒ k ≡ −7 ≡ 4
(mod 11).
(Note that the last step follows by noting that 7 is the inverse of 8 mod 11. This can
be found by trial and error or by the Euclidean algorithm.)
Anyhow we obtain x =
4 + 11 · 4 = 48 as a solution. (Alternatively, if we start from x1 = 7, we obtain another
root 73
(mod 112). Note that 73 ≡ −48
(mod 112).)
4.
Show that every number a has a unique cube root x modulo 101.
(For example, the number 14 has the cube root 6, since 63 = 216 ≡ 14
(mod 101). I
am asking you to show both existence and uniqueness of the cube root for any a, not just
for 14.)
Answer. Note that 101 is a prime number. In case a ≡ 0
(mod 101), then the only
solution is x ≡ 0. Otherwise, if a ̸≡ 0
(mod 101), then let g be a primitive root mod
101, and write a ≡ gb
(mod 101) for some b which is only determined modulo 100. We
are looking for an x ̸≡ 0
(mod 101), so we can write x ≡ gy
(mod 101), where y is our
“unknown” that is determined modulo 100. Then
x3 ≡ a
(mod 101) ⇐⇒ g3y ≡ gb
(mod 101) ⇐⇒ 3y ≡ b
(mod 100).
This last equation has a unique solution for y mod 100, since 3 is invertible modulo 100
[why?]. Once we know y, we then obtain a unique x.
5.
Using the Chinese Remainder Theorem, find one solution x to the equation x2 ≡ 1
(mod 91) with x ̸≡ ±1
(mod 91). (Again, you do not need to find the most general x of
this form. It may help you to notice that 91 = 7 · 13.)
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Answer. We want x2 ≡ 1 modulo each of the primes 7 and 13, so by an argument from
class we see that x ≡ ±1 modulo each of 7 or 13. To ensure that x ̸≡ ±1
(mod 91), we
take a different choice modulo each prime:
x ≡ +1
(mod 7),
x ≡ −1
(mod 13).
(∗)
This can be solved by the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Explicitly, we see that x = 13k−1
but x ≡ 1
(mod 7), so we obtain 13k − 1 ≡ 1
(mod 7), which we solve to obtain
k ≡ −2 ≡ 5
(mod 7). This yields x ≡ 13 · 5 − 1 ≡ 64
(mod 91). (One can alternatively
solve the opposite system from (∗), and obtain the other solution x ≡ 27
(mod 91).)
6.
Let p be a prime dividing 1032 + 1. Show that p ≡ 1
(mod 64). Hint: what is the
order of 10 modulo p?
Answer. We know that 1032 + 1 ≡ 0
(mod p), so we obtain 1032 ≡ −1
(mod p), and
also 1064 ≡ (1032)2 ≡ +1
(mod p). So the order of 10 modulo p is a factor of 64 but not
a factor of 32, so the order of 10 is exactly 64. But we know by the little Fermat theorem
that 10p−1 ≡ 1
(mod p), so the order of 10 is a factor of p − 1. This implies 64|p − 1, so
p ≡ 1
(mod 64).
Note: 1032 + 1 = 19841 · 976193 · 6187457 · 834427406578561. Also note that we used
implicitly the fact that −1 ̸≡ 1
(mod p). This is okay, since 1032 + 1 is odd, so p ̸= 2.
7.
In this question, p is a prime with p ̸= 2, 3. Even if you cannot prove every part of
this problem, you may assume the result of a previous part in all subsequent parts.
a) Show that p ≡ ±1
(mod 6).
b) Show that
�
−3
p
�
=
� p
3
�
.
c) Conclude that −3 is a quadratic residue modulo p if and only if p ≡ 1
(mod 6).
d) Show that there exist infinitely many primes of the form 6k + 1.
Answer. a) p is odd, so p ≡ 1, 3, or 5
(mod 6). But p is not divisible by 3, so the only
choices are p ≡ 1 or 5
(mod 6).
b) Case I: p ≡ 1
(mod 4), in which case
�
−3
p
�
=
�
−1
p
��
3
p
�
= (+1)
� p
3
�
.
Case II: p ≡ 3
(mod 4), in which case
�
−3
p
�
=
�
−1
p
��
3
p
�
= (−1)(−
� p
3
�
) = +
� p
3
�
.
c) −3 is a quadratic residue
⇐⇒
�
−3
p
�
= 1
⇐⇒
� p
3
�
= 1
⇐⇒
p ≡ 1
(mod 3)
⇐⇒
p ≡ 1
(mod 6). The last equivalence is because the only choices of p
modulo 6 are ±1, and this determines the residue of p modulo 3.
d) Assume p1, p2, . . . , pr are the only primes congruent to 1
(mod 6).
Form the
number N = 4(p1p2 · · · pr)2+3. It is easy to see that N is not divisible by any of the primes
2, 3, p1, p2, . . . , pr. So N is divisible by some other prime q. However, N ≡ 0
(mod q)
means that 4(p1p2 · · · pr)2+3 ≡ 0
(mod q), which means that the number a = 2p1p2 · · · pr
satisfies a2 ≡ −3
(mod q). Thus by part (c), q ≡ 1
(mod 6), and we have located a new
prime of the form 6k + 1; contradiction. Thus there are infinitely many such primes.
Note: you can instead use the choice N = 12(p1p2 · · · pr)2 + 1. Do you see why?
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